In Kantian terms, what does 'Universal Law' refer to?

• A. A law that should apply to all rational beings could be willed to be universal.
• B. A legal code that applies to the government.
• C. A universal moral law binding on all rational beings.
• D. A system with no laws.

Answer: (C)

The main idea here is that morality for Kant rests on laws that apply universally to every rational being. Universal Law is the universal moral rule you would be willing to have everyone follow. It’s tested by the Categorical Imperative: act only on maxims you could will to become a universal law. This means a principle must hold for all rational agents in all similar situations, not just for you in your particular case. It’s not about a government legal code or about having no laws at all; it’s about the fundamental duties that bind anyone capable of rational choice. For example, if your maxim is “it’s okay to lie when it’s convenient,” universalizing that would make lying self-defeating and impossible to sustain, so such a maxim isn’t morally permissible. In short, Universal Law in Kant’s terms means a universal moral principle binding on all rational beings.